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Beautiful Mess
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Discussion Starter · #1 ·
What is the difference between 1st generation and 2nd generation anti psychotics? What is the difference between an anti psychotic and a mood stabilizer?
 

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Psychs practically never prescribe first generation antipsychotics so you should do some research on it if you're interested (it won't be recommended). The newer antipsychots are less likely to zombify you, I think, but they have their own set of side effects so I'm not fully convinced that they are much better. One advantage is that they may have some antidepressant effects... in particular, abilify. One downfall is that they still can cause tics or tardive dyskinesia, which is a movement disorder. I'd do some research on it yourself, since I'm not very knowledgable. I generally just take whatever they throw at me.

Comparing with mood stabilizers, I know that both have mood stabilizing effects, believe it or not. So a psychiatrist can potentially try either one for bipolar. I think olanzapine is particularly effective but the weight gain is terrible. Abilify is becoming more popular nwoadays but it may make you restless if you start the dosage too high (abilify is what I'm on now, and let me tell you, the restlessness can be terrible.... look up akathisia).

Again, you can find more accurate info if you research this yourself. I'm just saying what's on the top of my head.
 

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Beautiful Mess
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Discussion Starter · #3 ·
Thanks for your reply. I did research the medications but wanted someone that had experience with the meds. My doc prescribed a first generation anti psychotic for me. I was just curious why.
 

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I think the 1st gen ones are mostly reserved for severe / treatment-resistant cases of schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, etc.. Their side-effects render them an option best avoided if at all possible. It's the kind of thing they give to psychotic crackheads for some time out in the loony bin...

Your doc probably has a compelling reason to use them, but if it was me I'd want to be 100% sure they were the only option before embarking down a road that can potentially lead to permanent disfigurement (due to tardive dyskinesia) and other side-effects such as depression (sometimes severe enough to result in suicide).
 

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What is the difference between 1st generation and 2nd generation anti psychotics? What is the difference between an anti psychotic and a mood stabilizer?
Just studied this recently. The primary difference is in the specificity of the 2nd gen anti-psychotics; They are a lot more specific than 1st gen anti-psychotics.

By specific I mean specific in the receptors they target. 1st gen anti-psychotics like phenothiazines are taken up in the brain by various types of receptors that cause unwanted side affects such as abnormalities in body movement and problems in the autonomic nervous system (affecting the heart and others).

2nd gens are more specific and so cause less unwanted side effects.

You might be interested to know there is a picture behind all this; it is thought the brain uses the same neurotransmitters for different purposes, for e.g. dopamine is important for movement, cognition and motivative behaviour.

So if you use a drug that enhances the effect of a neurotransmitter, or inhibits it (such as the case with anti-psychotics aka dopamine inhibitors), you get unwanted side effects. Researchers try to make the drugs more and more specific to certain receptors.

But then, if they went too specific they might undermine how complex much of the brains machinery is. A lot of it is interdependent.
 

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Thanks for your reply. I did research the medications but wanted someone that had experience with the meds. My doc prescribed a first generation anti psychotic for me. I was just curious why.
lol, shows what I know. I just assumed your doc wouldn't prescribe a first generation drug Who knows? I'd just ask him/her. Have you already tried a second-generation antipsychotic with little effect? That would be a reason why, but as far as how the drugs work, I don't know the details.
 

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In short, the first gen anti-psychotics are given to resiliant cases because they do a lot more. But, as mentioned above, they also produce more unwanted side effects.

The reason for prescribing second gens first, would be to stay on the safe side. Also there is obviously the fact that second gens are more mordern and valid medicine.
 

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Discussion Starter · #8 ·
I think the 1st gen ones are mostly reserved for severe / treatment-resistant cases of schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, etc.. Their side-effects render them an option best avoided if at all possible. It's the kind of thing they give to psychotic crackheads for some time out in the loony bin...

Your doc probably has a compelling reason to use them, but if it was me I'd want to be 100% sure they were the only option before embarking down a road that can potentially lead to permanent disfigurement (due to tardive dyskinesia) and other side-effects such as depression (sometimes severe enough to result in suicide).
OMG! I AM REALLY NUTS! I am going down in bi polar history!!!!!!!! :blank
 

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1st and 2nd gen are 100% USELESS CHEMICAL INDUCED HELL. You need to wait for NMDAr Anti-psychotics.
 
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